Biblical Hermeneutics Stack Exchange By Dan
According to Mark 15:34 (ESV):
And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, âEloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?â which means, âMy God, my God, why have you forsaken me?â
Jesus spoke Aramaic in his final moments. Was this his usual language? If so, why are the rest of his words quoted in Greek?
Jon gives a good answer as to why Jesus would have been able to speak Greek, Aramaic, and Hebrew. He also asked for more information regarding the existence of Hebrew in the Land at the time of Jesus. Mishnaic Hebrew was very well known in the first century and was distinguished from Aramaic in such works as the Letter of Aristeas and Josephus. See below for more details.
Mishnaic Hebrew as a Common Person’s Language in the Land
Based on old research, some claim that Hebrew was not a living language in use among the common people of the Land. Instead, they claim it was a scholarly or liturgical language. However, more and more evidence is coming to light that this is not so…
